Re: Have one-argument '<? et al function as 'make<? et al John Cowan 09 Mar 2014 19:49 UTC

Kevin Wortman scripsit:

> If I understand correctly, you want to be able to take a comparison
> predicate such as <? and a comparator, and produce a comparison procedure
> that uses that comparator without having to explicitly pass it as as an
> argument.

That is the whole point of make=?, make<?, etc.

John Cowan
Lope de Vega: "It wonders me I can speak at all.  Some caitiff rogue
did rudely yerk me on the knob, wherefrom my wits yet wander."
An Englishman: "Ay, belike a filchman to the nab'll leave you
crank for a spell." --Harry Turtledove, Ruled Britannia