At Sun, 09 Jan 2005 17:44:17 -0500, Paul Schlie wrote:
> > From: Robby Findler <xxxxxx@cs.uchicago.edu>
> > At Sun, 09 Jan 2005 17:34:56 -0500, Paul Schlie wrote:
> >> I would expect a #; comment to lexically remove the expression/token it's
> >> been lexically prepended to, nothing else. (including white-space). i.e.:
> >
> > FWIW, this would make #; useless for me. When I use it, the entire
> > value is that it works at the read level, not the lexical level.
> >
> > Robby
>
> Please explain? In what circumstance would you actually prefer/require to
> express:
>
> (a #;#; b c) => (a)
>
> Vs
>
> (a #;b #;c) => (a)

Oh, I don't care about that. It's this one:

  (a
   #;
   b)

=>

  (a  b)

that would wreck everything.

Robby